Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 15:55
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
What would TERFs do if there weren't such a thing as being transgender? Who would be their target?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
Have you ever seen a woman having sex with a dog?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
How would you describe modern day Russian society, beyond just politics?
You'll usually find your answer there.